EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Why is independent testing important?

Question2: Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. Early test design can find faults
iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. Early test design takes more effort

Question3: One of the roles in a review is that of moderator, which of the following best describes this role?

Question4: The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment?

Question5: Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)?

Question6: When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification?

Question7: Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase?

Question8: As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed?

Question9: Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

Question10: Which of the following is usually the test basis for integration testing?

Question11: A washing machine has three temperature bands for different kinds of fabrics: fragile fabrics are washed at temperatures between 15 and 30 degrees Celsius; normal fabrics are washed at temperatures between 31 and 60 degrees Celsius; heavily soiled and tough fabrics are washed at temperatures between 61 and 100 degrees Celsius.
Which of the following contains only values that are in different equivalence partitions?

Question12: Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)?

Question13: Which of the following is correct?
Debugging is:

Question14: Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing?

Question15: What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization?

Question16: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management..?

Question17: Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?
(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.
(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.
(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.
(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.

Question18: Which of the following is not true of regression testing?

Question19: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure?
1) Testing fault
2 ) Software fault
3 ) Design fault
4 ) Environment Fault
5 ) Documentation Fault

Question20: Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods?
a. To identify as many defects as possible
b. To maximise code coverage
c. To ensure the product works as expected
d. To assess the overall quality of the product
e. To determine the reliability of the product

Question21: It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Question22: Which of the following is most likely to cause failure in the implementation of a test tool?

Question23: The cost of fixing a fault:

Question24: What are metrics NOT used for?

Question25: A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.
Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non- functional requirements expressed in this statement?

Question26: What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk?

Question27: You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy?

Question28: A new system is about to be developed. Which of the following functions has the highest level of risk?

Question29: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field are:

Question30: What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Question31: Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Question32: Which of the following has the typical formal review activities in the correct sequence?

Question33: Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Question34: Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal
3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test
Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report?

Question35: Consider the following pseudo code
1 . Begin
2 . Read Gender
3 . __Print "Dear"
4 . If Gender = 'female'
5 . Print ("Ms")
6 . Else
7 . __Print ( "Mr")
8 . Endif
9 . End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Question36: In the MASPAR case study..?

Question37: Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate?

Question38: Which option is part of the 'implementation and execution' area of the fundamental test process?

Question39: Refer to the exhibit
The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.
Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints?

Question40: A software component has the code shown below:
Program BiggestA,
Biggest: Integer
Begin
Read A
Biggest = 10
While A > 0
Do
If A > Biggest
Then Biggest = A
Endif
Read A
Enddo
End
The component has exit criteria for component testing that include 100% statement coverage. Which of the following test cases will satisfy this criterion?

Question41: Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

Question42: The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?

Question43: Which of the following types of test tool are most likely to include traceability functions?
(i) Performance testing tool
(ii) Requirements management tool
(iii) Configuration management tool
(iv) Static analysis tool

Question44: Which of the following statements are true?
(i) For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.
(ii) Each test level has the same test objectives.
(iii) The analysis and design of tests for a given test level should begin after the corresponding development activity.
(iv)Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available in the development life cycle.

Question45: In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate?

Question46: Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

Question47: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

Question48: Boundary value testing:

Question49: Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?

Question50: Component testing may include:

Question51: For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

Question52: Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

Question53: You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan?

Question54: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

Question55: Which of the following are the most important factors to be taken into account when selecting test techniques?
(i) Tools available.
(ii) Regulatory standards.
(iii) Experience of the development team.
(iv) Knowledge of the test team.
The need to maintain levels of capability in each technique.

Question56: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

Question57: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Question58: Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process..?

Question59: Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful?
a. Each review has clear defined objectives
b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process
c. The right people for the review objective are involved
d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement
e. Management are not involved in the process at all
f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process
g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Question60: Which of the following is true about the V-model?

Question61: Which one of the following roles is typically used in a review?

Question62: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

Question63: Security falls under..?

Question64: When assembling a test team to work on an enhancement to an existing system, which of the following has the highest level of test independence?

Question65: Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level?

Question66: Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?

Question67: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

Question68: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data:

Question69: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Question70: Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed?

Question71: Which of the following are examples of iterative development models?
(i) V-model
(ii) Rapid Application Development model
(iii) Waterfall model
(iv) Agile development model

Question72: Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

Question73: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

Question74: Which activities form part of test planning?
i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment.
v) Writing test conditions.

Question75: Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Question76: Which type of review has the following main purposes:
discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Question77: A bug or defect is:

Question78: A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v. Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence?

Question79: You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution?

Question80: Which is not the testing objective?

Question81: Which statement correctly describes debugging?

Question82: The purpose of requirement phase is:

Question83: What can testing demonstrate?

Question84: What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?
(i) Executing component integration tests.
(ii) Static analysis.
(iii) Setting up the test environment.
(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.

Question85: Pick the best definition of quality:

Question86: What is the main purpose of use case testing?

Question87: Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use?
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time

Question88: Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools?
a. Test data preparation tools
b. Test harness
c. Review tools
d. Test comparators
e. Configuration management tools

Question89: "Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Question90: Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Question91: Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?
a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.
b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.
c)Always outsource testing activities.
d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Question92: Which of the following is a valid objective of testing?

Question93: Which is not the fundamental test process?

Question94: What is important to do when working with software development models?

Question95: Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

Question96: In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:
_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.
_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.
_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.
_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Question97: Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

Question98: Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?

Question99: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are:

Question100: As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria?

Question101: Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a. Variables that are never used.
b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.

Question102: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?
Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2if (Condition 2)then statement 3

Question103: Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs?

Question104: The selection of test cases for regression testing..?

Question105: A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

Question106: A test management tool is most likely to integrate with which of the following tools?

Question107: An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website.
The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the 'purchase identification' module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.
Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened?

Question108: Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first?

Question109: During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

Question110: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

Question111: Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review..?

Question112: Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

Question113: What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?
(i)The exit criteria.
(ii)The budget.
(iii)How big the test team is.
(iv)The product's risk profile.
(v)How good the testing tools are.
(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Question114: You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management.
Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations?

Question115: What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2?

Question116: The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process.
i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.
ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.
iii. Designing the test environment set-up.
iv. Developing and prioritizing test cases.
v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.
Which statement below is TRUE?

Question117: Which pair of definitions is correct?

Question118: Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition?

Question119: Statement Coverage will not check for the following:

Question120: Which of the following is the odd one out..?

Question121: Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk?

Question122: Given the Following program IF X <>= ZTHEN Statement 2;ENDMcCabe's Cyclomatic Complexity is :

Question123: Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options.

Question124: Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project?

Question125: What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Question126: Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why?

Question127: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are:

Question128: Complete statement and branch coverage means..?

Question129: The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U
Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V
Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X
Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y
Refer to the exhibit

Question130: Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Defects are likely to be found earlier in the development process by using reviews rather than static analysis.
(ii) Walkthroughs require code but static analysis does not require code.
(iii) Informal reviews can be performed on code and specifications.
(iv) Dynamic techniques are generally used before static techniques.
(v) Dynamic techniques can only be used after code is ready to be executed.

Question131: Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it?
i. Try to understand how the other person feels.
ii. Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals.
iii. Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa.
iv. Emphasize the common goal of better quality.
v. Each discussion is a battle to be won.

Question132: Which is the best definition of complete testing..?

Question133: Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

Question134: Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team?

Question135: Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

Question136: Testing should be stopped when:

Question137: In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team?

Question138: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Question139: A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:
_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.
_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.
_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.
_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.
To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Question140: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

Question141: Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

Question142: As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use?

Question143: What benefits do static analysis tools have over test execution tools?

Question144: Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives?

Question145: Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan?

Question146: Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.
(i)X-Z-V-W
(ii)W-Y-U-U

Question147: Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

Question148: Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement?

Question149: A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case?
Refer to the exhibit

Question150: Which of the following pairs of test tools are likely to be most useful during the test analysis and design stage of the fundamental test process?
(i) Test execution tool
(ii) Test data preparation tool
(iii) Test management tool
(iv) Requirements management tool

Question151: Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Question152: What do static analysis tools analyze?

Question153: Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution?

Question154: What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario?

Question155: Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks?

Question156: What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

Question157: How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?

Question158: A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced?

Question159: What is the value of static code analysis?

Question160: Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi?

Question161: The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.
Refer to the exhibit

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases?

Question162: Which of the following is true of iterative development?

Question163: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

Question164: Which of the following is most likely to be performed by developers?

Question165: Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box) test case design techniques?

Question166:

Question167: Which statement is most true?

Question168: A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.
Which of the following test types will be required during the development?

Question169: Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools?

Question170: Independent Verification & Validation is:

Question171: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?

Question172: Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

Question173: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:

Question174: A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows:
Fail: 0-39 inclusive
Pass: 40-59 inclusive
Merit: 60-79 inclusive
Distinction: 80-100 inclusive
In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?

Question175: From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques?
a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers
c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Question176: Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics?

Question177: The purpose of exit criteria is:

Question178: Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks?

Question179: Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task 'verify the test environment set up is correct' relate to?

Question180: You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report?

Question181: Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager?

Question182: Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances?

Question183: What do you mean by "Having to say NO"..?

Question184: What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

Question185: Which of the following terms is used to describe the management of software components comprising an integrated system?

Question186: Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools?

Question187: Which of the following is most likely to be a benefit of using static techniques?

Question188: Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level?

Question189: Which of the following are valid test objectives?
(i)Finding defects.
(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.
(iii)Preventing defects.
(iv)Debugging the code.

Question190: The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage?

Question191: Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan?

Question192: Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status?

Question193: Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run?

Question194: Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

Question195: What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

Question196: Consider the following pseudo code:
1 Begin
2 Read Time
3 If Time < 12 Then
4 Print(Time, "am")
5 Endif
6 If Time > 12 Then
7 Print(Time −12, "pm")
8 Endif
9 If Time = 12 Then
10 Print (Time, "noon")
11 Endif
12 End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Question197: Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product?

Question198: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase:

Question199: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:

Question200: Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

Question201: Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing?

Question202: Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools?

Question203: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called..?

Question204: The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses.
Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate?

Question205: Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?

Question206: What is retesting?

Question207: What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?
Date of Issue: 23/11/05
Severity: P1
Build: Version15.6
Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Question208: Which of the following are most likely to be used when developing a test strategy or test approach?
(i) Failure-based approach
(ii)Test specification approach
(iii) Model-based approach
(iv)Finance-based approach

Question209: Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing?

Question210: Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development?

Question211: Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.

Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase?

Question212: Which of the following is a role of a formal review?

Question213: What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Question214: Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution?

Question215: Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project?

Question216: What is decision table testing?

Question217: Which of these are objectives for software testing?

Question218: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

Question219: Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Question220: Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Question221: Consider the following pseudo code:
1 Begin
2 Read Time
3 If Time < 12 Then
4 Print(Time, "am")
5 Endif
6 If Time > 12 Then
7 Print(Time −12, "pm")
8 Endif
9 If Time = 12 Then
10 Print (Time, "noon")
11 Endif
12 End
If the test cases Time = 11 and Time = 15 were input, what level of decision coverage would be achieved?

Question222: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:

Question223: "How much testing is enough?"

Question224: The effect of testing is to:

Question225: Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase..?

Question226: Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?

Question227: Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively?

Question228: Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Question229: When is testing complete?

Question230: Which of the following are static techniques?

Question231: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

Question232: Which of the following BEST defines static techniques?

Question233: Fault Masking is:

Question234: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called..?

Question235: Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?
(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.
(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.
(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.
(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

Question236: Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach?

Question237: Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account user is required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who can only create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high-level structure of the software
a. Create an invoice
b. Amend an invoice
c. Process an invoice (send to customer)
d. Delete an invoice
e. Create an account
f. Create an account user
g. Amend an account user
h. Delete an account user
i. Amend an account
j. Delete an account
Which of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run?

Question238: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?

Question239: Which of the following defines the expected result of a test?

Question240: What is the benefit of independent testing?

Question241: Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2?
Refer to the exhibit

Question242: IEEE 1028 also defines "management review" as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review?

Question243: Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique?

Question244: Non-functional system testing includes:

Question245: Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide?

Question246: What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having theeffects of that change show up in some test..?

Question247: When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Question248: Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?
(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.
(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.
(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.
(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.
(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.
(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

Question249: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Question250: What is a test condition?

Question251: Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met?
a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing
b. Incidents closed in systems testing
c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing
d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing
e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Question252: Maintenance testing is:

Question253: A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

Question254: Which of the following principles should be followed when introducing a test tool into an organization?
(i) Assessing organizational maturity to establish whether a tool will provide expected benefits.
(ii) Requiring a quick payback on the initial investment.
(iii) Including a requirement for the tool to be easy to use without having to train unskilled testers.
(iv) Identifying and agreeing requirements before evaluating test tools.

Question255: Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as..?

Question256: In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy.

Question257: A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Question258: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:

Question259: What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?
(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.
(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.
(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.
(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.
(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Question260: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?

Question261: Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year?
i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.

Question262: Which of the following statements about risks is most accurate?

Question263: System testing is:

Question264: What is static analysis?

Question265: Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design.

Question266: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

Question267: What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites ..?

Question268: Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing?